Hi Experts,
I am doing Internal Order settlement with KO88 for period 007/2015 for AUC Asset. The Value is USD 28,787.00
However, when I checked Actual cost line item details for Order in KOB1 the Value is USD 46,498.00.
I have attached screenshot for reference.
I don't know much about Controlling module.
Please guide me to trace this difference.
Regards,
Prakash
Hi,
if you activate splitting then FCV inherit splitting analytics, that's why you need to find document which was valuated, and check PC-Segment there.
Hi Gurus
While reconcilling TB to COPA we have analyzed that system is taking gross revenue to COPA rather than NET value. After evaluation we came to know that for billing document system is making entries
Customer DR 298554.55 (This is net sales)
sales DR 29,855.45 (amount is similar to output tax amount)
discount DR 2,024.00
Sales CR 330,434.00
output tax CR 29,855.45
The system is not taking DR of sales account to COPA.
My question is that : accounting entries are balance but why system is again debitting the account from output tax amount rather than creditting the single amount of net sales.
What should we do next? we need to present report to top management and we are crossing our deadlines.
Dear Waman,
is the report mentioned by you only to be executed for a single SD order (case-by-case) or is there any possibility to run this or a similar report whenever you change something in a SD document?
Thanks in advance four your support.
Kind regards
Tobias
Hi Mukthar,
Okay i will do that and one more thing before do that configuration.
please find the below screen of utilization determination, earlier only 4 account names only exists, i have configured the red circle account name i.e. RG 23C AED account.
please let me know shall i have to keep it or do i have to maintain anything else in the "Utilization determination"
please let me know.
Hello Gurus,
We have brought the Internal Order balance to zero by means of manual FI postings. But the issue is, still we could not able to close the internal order, while closing the order we are getting error KO115 errror "Balance of ORD XXXXXXXX is not zero".
Attached the screen shot order cost analysis.
Manual posting done for the cost element 320252
Thanks & Regards
Kiran
Hi Kiran,
Please refer below mentioned thread.
http://scn.sap.com/thread/1362371
I hope this will help you to resolve your issue.
Regards,
Prakash
Hi Avinash,
Keep the configuration as it is.
Regards,
Mukthar
Hi Zunaid,
You can release the price for each period at once. So for new price you cannot release the price. However, you can delete the old cost estimation in CKR1 and run cost estimation afresh and release the price.
Regards,
Mukthar
Hi Mukhtar,
But we have posted few documents in old CK11N. We this allow us to delete the cost estimate. And also will it have any negative impact.
Regards
Zunaid.
Hi Mukhtar,
I have deleted and rerun CK11N and CK24. But problem is in KKF6N, rate is coming as 3.28 and in MM03 rate is coming as 3.51. there is a difference of .23. I am not sure exactly where it is coming from. if you remember anything like this then please share.
Regards
Zunaid
Team,
We tried to developed BDC for F-02 then screen will stop in field of discount base amount and do not go ahead. Whenever we enter zero in field of discount base amount then system pass the screen & entry will be done.Pl suggest how we can remove error so that curser does not stop in that field-discount base amount so that error of automatic calculation not possible MessageNo.F5172 ..
Thanks,
Dharmveer
The message is coming for a valid reason. Please read the OSS note 148533 - F5172 'Enter discount... ...not possible'.and 170265 - FIPP: No batch input data for screen SAPMF05A 0301. It explains the causes and resolution.
Hi Zunaid
Seems you have used different valuation variant in your costing variant used for std cost est and for prel cost estimate of PCC.
Check where is the difference you will find the cause for diff in both calculations.
Regards
Rajneesh
Hello,
I am trying to understand the production variances in SAP. After a lot of reading I felt confident and sure that I understand it.
But than my consultant told me something like this:
"We found Problem: What we have experienced is that;
Why this is a problem? As I understand if Target Qty is different than Actual Qty than there is Input Qty Variance.. the same with base price.
The answer was that the "Target should be always equal Actual" - Is that true?
This two information made me totally confused and I don't want to spam question to my consultants.. so I am looking for answer in this forum.
Could somebody explain me how this is a problem and how it should work?
Thank you for understanding.
Regards,
Wojciech
Hi
Target cost is Std cost for Actual output. So don't get confused.
Rajneesh
Yes Zunaid
Rajneesh
Thank you for answer but still I am confused...
As example of my understanding:
We have target qty of item "X" = 1
On production we realized that we will have to use "X" = "2"
Target "X" = 1
Actual "X" = 2
This is not working like this? When the input variances are activated?
Wojciech
Hi
Yes this will give you input variance.
Regards
Rajneesh
Hi,
Please go through below SAP notes for better understanding:-
597159 - Price calculation seems to calculate incorrect values
772794 - Splitting calculates incorrect values
Regards,
Anand Raichura